In this article, we will continue with our series of multiple choice practice test questions and answers for AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner(Foundational) exam. If you haven't checked it now, please check it on AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner(Foundational) Practice Test Part - 1 [Latest] before proceeding with next set of practice questions and answers. So far we have looked into few of the foundational questions that gives great overview of the core concepts and services in AWS Cloud. Let's continue to see few more questions and answers in this practice set.

 

AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner(Foundational) Practice Test Part - 2 [Latest]

Also Read: How to Create an EC2 Instance Using Lambda Function in AWS

1. A large enterprise with multiple VPCs in several AWS Regions around the world needs to connect and centrally manage network connectivity between its VPCs. Which AWS service or feature meets these requirements?

a) AWS Direct Connect
b) AWS Transit Gateway
c) AWS Site-to-Site VPN
d) VPC endpoints

Ans. b) AWS Transit Gateway 

 

2. Which statement best describes Amazon GuardDuty?

a) A service that monitors network requests for web applications

b) A service that helps protect applications against distributed denial-of-service(DDoS) attacks

c) A service that provides intelligent threat detection for AWS infrastructure and resources

d) A service that checks applications for security vulnerabilities and deviations from security best practices

Ans. c) A service that provides intelligent threat detection for AWS infrastructure and resources

 

3. Which action can a person perform in Amazon CloudFront?

a) Deliver content to customers through a global network of edge locations

b) Provision resources by using programming languages or a text file

c) Provision an isolated section of the AWS Cloud to launch resources in a virtual network that a person defines

d) Run infrastructure in a hybrid cloud approach

Ans. a) Deliver content to customers through a global network of edge locations

 

4. Which service runs containerized applications on AWS?

a) Amazon RedShift

b) Amazon Aurora

c) Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS)

d) Amazon SageMaker

Ans. c) Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS)

 

5. Which migration strategy involves changing how an application is architected and developed, typically by using cloud-native features?

a) Replatforming

b) Rehosting

c) Repurchasing

d) Refactoring

Ans. d) Refactoring

 

6. Which Perspective of the AWS Cloud Adoption Framework focuses on recovering IT workloads to meet the requirements of business stakeholders?

a) Governance Perspective

b) Business Perspective

c) Operations Perspective

d) People Perspective

Ans. c) Operations Perspective

 

7. Which statement best describes an Availability Zone?

a) A separate geographical location with multiple locations that are isolated from each other

b) A site that Amazon CloudFront uses to cache copies of content for faster delivery to users at any location

c) The server from which Amazon CloudFront gets files

d) A fully isolated portion of the AWS global infrastructure

Ans. d) A fully isolated portion of the AWS global infrastructure

 

8. Which statement best describes Elastic Load Balancing?

a) A service that monitors applications and automatically adds or removes capacity from resource groups in response to changing demand

b) A service that provides data for monitoring applications, optimize resource utilization, and respond to system-wide performance changes

c) A service that distributes incoming traffic across multiple targets, such as Amazon EC2 instances

d) A service that provides the capability to create, manage, and scale a distributed in-memory or cache environment in the cloud

Ans. c) A service that distributes incoming traffic across multiple targets, such as Amazon EC2 instances

 

9. An application developer wants to send and receive messages between distributed application components. Which service should they use?

a) Amazon Route 53

b) Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)

c) Amazon ElasticCache

d) AWS Snowball

Ans. b) Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)

 

10. A company is preparing to launch a new web store that is expected to receive high traffic for an upcoming event. The web store runs only on AWS, and the company has an AWS Enterprise Support plan. Which AWS resource will provide guidance about how the company should scale its architecture and operational support during the event?

a) AWS Abuse team
b) The designated AWS technical account manager (TAM)
c) AWS infrastructure event management 
d) AWS Professional Services

Ans. c) AWS infrastructure event management

 

11. Which component or service establishes a dedicated private connection between an on-premises data center and virtual private cloud (VPC)?

a) Amazon CloudFront

b) Virtual Private Gateway

c) AWS Direct Connect

d) Internet gateway

Ans. c) AWS Direct Connect

 

12. In the S3 Intelligent-Tiering storage class, Amazon S3 moves objects between a frequent access tier and an infrequent access tier. Which storage classes are used for these tiers? (Select TWO)

a) S3 Standard- IA

b) S3 Glacier Deep Archive

c) S3 Standard

d) S3 Glacier Flexible Retreival

e) S3 One Zone-IA

Ans. a) S3 Standard- IA

c) S3 Standard

 

13. Which service provides the capability to quickly deploy and scale applications on AWS?

a) AWS Elastic Beanstalk

b) Amazon CloudFront

c) AWS Outposts

d) AWS Snowball

Ans. a) AWS Elastic Beanstalk

 

14. Which service is used to transfer up to 100 PB of data to AWS?

a) Amazon Neptune

b) AWS Snowmobile

c) AWS DeepRacer

d) Amazon CloudFront

Ans. b) AWS Snowmobile

 

15. Which AWS Trusted Advisor category includes checks for high-utilization EC2 instances?

a) Cost Optimization

b) Fault Tolerance

c) Performance

d) Security

Ans. c) Performance

 

16. A cloud engineer is running an Amazon EC2 instance and wants to store data in an attached resource. Their data is temporary and will not be kept long term. Which resource should they use?

a) Subnet

b) Amazon S3 bucket

c) Instance store

d) Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume

Ans. c) Instance store

 

17. Which tasks are the responsibilities of AWS? (Select TWO)

a) Creating IAM users and groups

b) Configuring security groups on Amazon EC2 instances

c) Configuring AWS infrastructure devices

d) Maintaining virtualization infrastructure

e) Taking company employees on how to use AWS services

Ans. c) Configuring AWS infrastructure devices

d) Maintaining virtualization infrastructure

 

18. Which statement is true for AWS Lambda?

a) Businesses pay only for compute time while their code is running

b) To use AWS Lambda, businesses must configure the servers that run their code

c) Before using AWS Lambda, a business must prepay for their estimated compute time

d) The first step in using AWS Lambda is provisioning a server.

Ans. a) Businesses pay only for compute time while their code is running

 

19. A cloud engineer wants to store data in a volume that is attached to an Amazon EC2 instance. Which service should they use?

a) Amazon ElastiCache

b) Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)

c) AWS Lambda

d) Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)

Ans. b) Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)

 

20. Which virtual private cloud (VPC) component controls inbound and outbound traffic for Amazon EC2 instances?

a) Security group

b) Subnet

c) Network access control list

d) Internet gateway

Ans. a) Security group

 

21. Which service consolidates and manages multiple AWS accounts from a central location?

a) AWS Artifact

b) AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS)

c) AWS Organizations

d) AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)

Ans. c) AWS Organizations

 

22. Which actions can a person perform in Amazon Route 53? (Select TWO)

a) Manage DNS records for domain names

b) Automate the deployment of workloads into an AWS environment

c) Connect user requests to infrastructure in AWS and outside of AWS

d) Monitor applications and respond to system-wide performance changes

e) Access AWS security and compliance reports and select online agreements

Ans. a) Manage DNS records for domain names

c) Connect user requests to infrastructure in AWS and outside of AWS

 

23. Which statement best describes AWS Marketplace?

a) An online tool that inspects an AWS environment and provides real-time guidance in accordance with AWS best practices

b) A digital catalog that includes thousands of software listings from independent software vendors

c) A resource that can answer questions about best practices and assist with troubleshooting issues

d) A resource that provides guidance, architectural reviews, and ongoing communication with companies as they plan, deploy and optimize their applications

Ans. b) A digital catalog that includes thousands of software listings from independent software vendors

 

24. An application developer wants to store data in a key-value database. Which service should they use?

a) Amazon DynamoDB

b) Amazon Aurora

c) Amazon DocumentDB

d) Amazon RDS

Ans. a) Amazon DynamoDB

 

25. Which tool provides the capability to visualize, understand and manage AWS costs and usage over time?

a) AWS Budgets

b) AWS Cost Explorer

c) AWS Pricing Calculator

d) AWS Artifact

Ans. b) AWS Cost Explorer

 

26. A cloud architect wants Amazon S3 to monitor object access patterns. Which storage class should they use?

a) Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering

b) Amazon S3 One Zone-IA

c) Amazon S3 Standard-IA

d) Amazon S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval

Ans. a) Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering

 

27. Which Support plans include access to all AWS Trusted Advisor checks? (Select TWO)

a) Business

b) AWS Free Tier

c) Enterprise

d) Developer

e) Basic

Ans. a) Business

c) Enterprise

 

28. Which service provides review details for user activities and API calls that have occurred within an AWS environment?

a) Amazon Inspector

b) Amazon CloudWatch

c) AWS Trusted Advisor

d) AWS CloudTrail

Ans. d) AWS CloudTrail

 

29. Which tool provides automation actions for AWS services and applications through scripts?

a) Amazon QLDB

b) AWS Command Line Interface

c) Amazon Redshift

d) AWS Snowball

Ans. b) AWS Command Line Interface

 

30. Which Amazon EC2 pricing option reduces costs when a business makes an hourly spend commitment to an instance family and Region for a 1-year or 3-year term?

a) Reserved Instances

b) EC2 Instance Savings Plan

c) Dedicated Hosts

d) Spot Instances

Ans. b) EC2 Instance Savings Plan

 

31. Which service builds the workflows that are required for human review of machine learning predictions?

a) Amazon Lex

b) Amazon Textract

c) Amazon Augmented AI

d) Amazon Aurora

Ans. c) Amazon Augmented AI

 

32. Which pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework focuses on using computing resources in ways that meet system requirements?

a) Performance Efficiency

b) Operational Excellence

c) Reliability

d) Security

Ans. a) Performance Efficiency

 

33. What are the benefits of cloud computing? (Select TWO.)

a) Increase speed and agility

b) Benefit from smaller economies of scale

c) Trade variable expense for upfront expense

d) Maintain infrastructure capacity

e) Stop spending money running and maintaining data centers

Ans. a) Increase speed and agility

e) Stop spending money running and maintaining data centers

 

34. Which pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework includes the ability to run workloads effectively and gain insights into their operations?

a) Cost Optimization

b) Operational Excellence

c) Performance Efficiency 

d) Reliability

Ans. b) Operational Excellence

 

35. Which process is an example of benefitting from massive economies of scale?

a) Deploying an application in multiple Regions around the world

b) Receiving lower pay-as-you-go prices as the result of AWS customers aggregated usage of services

c) Paying for compute time as you use it instead of investing upfront costs in data centers

d) Scaling your infrastructure capacity in and out to meet demand

Ans. b) Receiving lower pay-as-you-go prices as the result of AWS customers aggregated usage of services

 

36. Which pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework focuses on the ability of a workload to consistently and correctly perform its intended functions?

a) Operational Excellence

b) Performance Efficiency

c) Security

d) Reliability

Ans. d) Reliability

 

37. Which statement best describes Amazon Lex?

a) A service that enables you to build conversational interfaces using voice and text

b) A machine learning service that automatically extracts text and data from scanned documents

c) A document database service that supports MongoDB workloads

d) A service that enables you to identify potentially fraudulent online activities

Ans. a) A service that enables you to build conversational interfaces using voice and text

 

38. What is the storage capacity of AWS Snowmobile?

a) 40 PB

b) 60 PB

c) 80 PB

d) 100 PB

Ans. d) 100 PB

 

39. Which strategies are included in the six strategies for application migration? (Select TWO)

a) Revisiting

b) Retaining

c) Remembering

d) Redeveloping

e) Rehosting

Ans. b) Retaining

e) Rehosting

 

40. Which Perspective of the AWS Cloud Adoption Framework helps you structure the selection and implementation of permissions?

a) Governance Perspective

b) Security Perspective

c) Operations Perspective

d) Business Perspective

Ans. b) Security Perspective

 

41. Which service enables you to quickly build, train, and deploy machine learning models?

a) Amazon Textract

b) Amazon Lex

c) AWS DeepRacer

d) Amazon SageMaker

Ans. d) Amazon SageMaker

 

42. What is the storage capacity of Snowball Edge Storage Optimized?

a) 40 TB

b) 60 TB

c) 80 TB

d) 100 TB

Ans. c) 80 TB

 

43. Which migration strategy involves moving to a different product?

a) Refactoring

b) Retiring

c) Replatforming

d) Repurchasing

Ans. d) Repurchasing

 

44. Which Perspective of the AWS Cloud Adoption Framework helps you design, implement, and optimize your AWS infrastructure based on your business goals and perspectives?

a) Business Perspective

b) Platform Perspective

c) Operations Perspective

d) People Perspective

Ans. b) Platform Perspective

 

45. Which service or resource is used to find third-party software that runs on AWS?

a) AWS Marketplace

b) AWS Free Tier

c) AWS Support

d) Billing dashboard in the AWS Management Console

Ans. a) AWS Marketplace

 

46. Your company wants to receive support from an AWS Technical Account Manager(TAM). Which support plan should you choose?

a) Developer

b) Enterprise

c) Basic

d) Business

Ans. b) Enterprise

 

47. Which pricing tool enables you to receive alerts when your service usage exceeds a threshold that you have defined?

a) Billing dashboard in the AWS Management Console

b) AWS Budgets

c) AWS Free Tier

d) AWS Cost Explorer

Ans. b) AWS Budgets

 

48.Which action can you perform with consolidated billing?

a) Review how much cost your predicted AWS usage will incur by the end of the month

b) Create an estimate for the cost of your use cases on AWS

c) Combine usage across accounts to receive volume pricings discounts

d) Visualize and manage your AWS costs and usage over time

Ans. c) Combine usage across accounts to receive volume pricings discounts

 

49. Which support plan includes all AWS Trusted Advisor checks at the lowest cost?

a) Basic

b) Developer

c) Business

d) Enterprise

Ans. c) Business

 

50. The AWS Free Tier includes offers that are available to new AWS customers for a certain period of time following their AWS sign-up date. What is the duration of this period?

a) 3 months

b) 6 months

c) 9 months

d) 12 months

Ans. d) 12 months